And people bitch about me for not knowing how to write.
i read this and i got like mixed up 8 of them up and i know english
1. Not a good explanation, but it has to do with the fact that the first is a true diphthong belonging to the language, while the second is the orthographic response to vowel lengthening.
2. Noun accent is on the first syllable, verb accent is on the second in pairs. It’s not a 100% rule, but it is a very good generalization that works in most places.
3. same as 2
4. Capitalization takes care of this, not sure why it’s actually listed.
5. One is the result of a diphthong’s sound being morphed, the other is a vowel lengthening, like 1
6. same as 2, plus an orthographic response to a homophonic pair.
7. same as 2, plus a linguistic anomaly where two unrelated words’ sounds change in such a way that they are now pronounced the same, thus the spelling reflects that.
8. This is due to the insistence that we continue to spell things as they were pronounced many generations ago.
9. Same as 7b, plus an ablaut that alters the sound of “dive.”
10. same as 2
11. same as 2
12. Hompohonic pairs where the orthography was never updated due to the obsoletion of a word “row = fight.”
13. The first silent “e” lengthens the “o” in a word of English origin, the second silent “e” causes the “s” to be pronounced [z] in a word of French origin.
14. same as 9, except the ablaut changes the pronunciation of “do.”
15. The first is a corruption of a diphthong, the second is also the corruption of a diphthong, they just changed differently because one changed in isolation form the -er ending. If you remember which one originally has the -er ending, it clears up.
16. One diphthong was retained, and one was corrupted. This likely has something to do with one being a noun, the other a verb (it really can make a difference).
17. I believe we dropped a silent “e” off of the second one (winde), but I’m not sure.
18. We lost the pronunciation of final voiced bilabial plosives following bilabial nasals, adding an ending doesn’t change this loss as it might in, say, French. Similar to 15
19. One is a corruption of the Latin (AE), the other is a vowel lengthening (related to Greek).
20. same as 2
21. One is a corruption of a Greek verb ending, the other is simply how a word is pronounced. This one is difficult.
Oh, English is still really freaking difficult. This was just fun to post!